bigpicture7
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It's all about the higher gross rents to satisfy the building's lenders (you're not lowering the price of the rental), and as a real estate trick it works better with commercial tenants (you throw them 2-3 free months over five years) than it does in residential buildings.
So, I keep hearing this, but help a non-insider (thank God) understand: why does a lender who has already issued a loan need to see this to be satisfied? Do you mean that it is in the building owner's interest to pursue this approach so that the building is more sellable to another entity in the future (i.e., so they can get new financing)? Help me understand why a lender who has already issued a loan gets a say in what future rents are, so long as the debtor is paying.